TECHNICAL MOTI : April 2025

Hello everyone, and a warm welcome to today’s MCQ test!

I’m Moti Yadav, and I’m excited to have you here. This assessment is a great opportunity to test your knowledge, sharpen your thinking, and most importantly—learn something new.

Take a deep breath, read each question carefully, and trust your preparation. Wishing you all the very best—let’s begin!

Here are 100 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for a DMLT (Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology) licensing exam, covering various subjects like microbiology, biochemistry, hematology, pathology, and clinical laboratory techniques.

1. Which stain is commonly used for blood smear examination?

A) Gram stain
B) Wright’s stain
C) Crystal violet
D) Safranin

Answer: B) Wright’s stain

2. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult males?

A) 8-12 g/dL
B) 12-16 g/dL
C) 13-17 g/dL
D) 16-20 g/dL

Answer: C) 13-17 g/dL

3. Which anticoagulant is used in a CBC (Complete Blood Count) test?

A) EDTA
B) Sodium citrate
C) Heparin
D) Fluoride

Answer: A) EDTA

4. The Widal test is used for diagnosing which disease?

A) Tuberculosis
B) Typhoid fever
C) Malaria
D) Dengue

Answer: B) Typhoid fever

5. Which component is responsible for blood clotting?

A) White blood cells
B) Platelets
C) Plasma
D) Red blood cells

Answer: B) Platelets

6. What is the normal fasting blood glucose level?

A) 50-80 mg/dL
B) 70-99 mg/dL
C) 100-140 mg/dL
D) 120-160 mg/dL

Answer: B) 70-99 mg/dL

7. Which media is selective for Salmonella and Shigella?

A) MacConkey Agar
B) XLD Agar
C) Chocolate Agar
D) Nutrient Agar

Answer: B) XLD Agar

8. Which method is used for sterilization of heat-sensitive materials?

A) Autoclaving
B) Dry heat sterilization
C) Filtration
D) Incineration

Answer: C) Filtration

9. The ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) test is used to detect:

A) Bacterial infections
B) Inflammatory conditions
C) Liver function disorders
D) Kidney diseases

Answer: B) Inflammatory conditions

10. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Answer: B) Staphylococcus aureus

11. Which of the following urine findings suggests a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

A) Low pH
B) Presence of nitrites and leukocytes
C) High glucose levels
D) Increased ketone bodies

Answer: B) Presence of nitrites and leukocytes

12. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for detecting:

A) Gram-positive bacteria
B) Gram-negative bacteria
C) Acid-fast bacteria
D) Fungi

Answer: C) Acid-fast bacteria

13. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in kidney disease?

A) Low sodium
B) High potassium
C) Low calcium
D) High magnesium

Answer: B) High potassium

14. The Coombs test is used to diagnose:

A) Hemophilia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Leukemia
D) Polycythemia

Answer: B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

15. Which bacteria cause syphilis?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Haemophilus ducreyi

Answer: B) Treponema pallidum

16. Which anticoagulant is used for coagulation tests (PT, APTT)?

A) EDTA
B) Heparin
C) Sodium citrate
D) Fluoride

Answer: C) Sodium citrate

17. The best sample for detecting malarial parasites is:

A) Serum
B) Capillary blood smear
C) Urine
D) CSF

Answer: B) Capillary blood smear

18. The presence of RBC casts in urine indicates:

A) Bacterial infection
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Liver cirrhosis

Answer: B) Glomerulonephritis

19. Which test is used to monitor long-term glucose control in diabetics?

A) Fasting blood sugar
B) Random blood sugar
C) HbA1c
D) Glucose tolerance test

Answer: C) HbA1c

20. The causative organism of tuberculosis is:

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Answer: B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

21. What is the main function of the liver in metabolism?

A) Oxygen transport
B) Detoxification and glucose regulation
C) Blood clotting
D) Hormone production

Answer: B) Detoxification and glucose regulation

22. What is the primary function of neutrophils?

A) Blood clotting
B) Antibody production
C) Phagocytosis of bacteria
D) Oxygen transport

Answer: C) Phagocytosis of bacteria

23. A "shift to the left" in a WBC differential indicates:

A) Viral infection
B) Increased immature neutrophils
C) Decreased lymphocytes
D) Increased eosinophils

Answer: B) Increased immature neutrophils

24. In electrophoresis, the movement of proteins depends on:

A) Size and shape
B) Electrical charge
C) Both A and B
D) Only pH

Answer: C) Both A and B

25. What is the normal range of total cholesterol?

A) 50-100 mg/dL
B) 100-150 mg/dL
C) 150-200 mg/dL
D) 200-250 mg/dL

Answer: C) 150-200 mg/dL

26. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin K

Answer: D) Vitamin K

27. The reagent used for protein detection in urine is:

A) Benedict’s reagent
B) Sulfosalicylic acid
C) Fehling’s solution
D) Iodine solution

Answer: B) Sulfosalicylic acid

28. A deficiency of Vitamin B12 leads to:

A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia

Answer: B) Pernicious anemia

29. The normal pH of blood is:

A) 6.8-7.0
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.5-8.0
D) 8.2-9.0

Answer: B) 7.35-7.45

30. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on:

A) Shape
B) Oxygen requirement
C) Cell wall structure
D) Growth rate

Answer: C) Cell wall structure

31. The test used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis is:

A) Paul-Bunnell test
B) Widal test
C) Mantoux test
D) Coombs test

Answer: A) Paul-Bunnell test

32. Blood group antigens are found on:

A) WBCs
B) Platelets
C) RBC membranes
D) Plasma proteins

Answer: C) RBC membranes

33. In CSF analysis, an increased WBC count with lymphocyte predominance suggests:

A) Viral meningitis
B) Bacterial meningitis
C) Fungal infection
D) Parasitic infection

Answer: A) Viral meningitis

34. The normal platelet count in an adult is:

A) 10,000-50,000/mm³
B) 50,000-100,000/mm³
C) 150,000-400,000/mm³
D) 500,000-700,000/mm³

Answer: C) 150,000-400,000/mm³

35. The common test for syphilis is:

A) VDRL
B) ELISA
C) Widal test
D) Mantoux test

Answer: A) VDRL

36. A high reticulocyte count indicates:

A) Bone marrow failure
B) Active red blood cell production
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Iron deficiency

Answer: B) Active red blood cell production

37. The causative agent of malaria is:

A) Plasmodium
B) Leishmania
C) Trypanosoma
D) Toxoplasma

Answer: A) Plasmodium

38. What is the principle of ELISA?

A) Antigen-antibody reaction
B) PCR amplification
C) Gram staining
D) Coagulation cascade

Answer: A) Antigen-antibody reaction

39. Which test is used for kidney function evaluation?

A) Bilirubin test
B) Creatinine clearance test
C) Prothrombin time
D) CRP test

Answer: B) Creatinine clearance test

40. A positive Mantoux test indicates:

A) Tuberculosis infection
B) Typhoid fever
C) HIV infection
D) Rheumatic fever

Answer: A) Tuberculosis infection

Here are 40 more DMLT licensing exam multiple-choice questions, covering microbiology, hematology, biochemistry, pathology, and clinical lab techniques.

61. The causative organism of tetanus is:

A) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Bacillus anthracis

Answer: A) Clostridium tetani

62. Which organ produces erythropoietin?

A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Bone marrow
D) Pancreas

Answer: B) Kidney

63. What is the normal bleeding time using the Duke method?

A) 1-2 minutes
B) 2-5 minutes
C) 5-10 minutes
D) 10-15 minutes

Answer: B) 2-5 minutes

64. Which stain is used for detecting fungal infections?

A) Gram stain
B) Giemsa stain
C) PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff) stain
D) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Answer: C) PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff) stain

65. What does a positive Benedict’s test indicate?

A) Protein in urine
B) Reducing sugars in urine
C) Ketones in urine
D) Blood in urine

Answer: B) Reducing sugars in urine

66. The best sample for CSF analysis is collected by:

A) Venipuncture
B) Arterial puncture
C) Lumbar puncture
D) Skin biopsy

Answer: C) Lumbar puncture

67. What is the function of basophils?

A) Produce antibodies
B) Release histamine during allergic reactions
C) Destroy bacteria
D) Participate in blood clotting

Answer: B) Release histamine during allergic reactions

68. Which sugar is detected in Benedict’s test?

A) Glucose
B) Sucrose
C) Lactose
D) Maltose

Answer: A) Glucose

69. Which urine test detects ketone bodies?

A) Rothera’s test
B) Benedict’s test
C) Sulfosalicylic acid test
D) Biuret test

Answer: A) Rothera’s test

70. The anticoagulant used for blood glucose testing is:

A) EDTA
B) Sodium fluoride
C) Heparin
D) Sodium citrate

Answer: B) Sodium fluoride

71. The function of albumin in blood is to:

A) Carry oxygen
B) Regulate osmotic pressure
C) Act as an enzyme
D) Transport glucose

Answer: B) Regulate osmotic pressure

72. The lifespan of a red blood cell is:

A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days

Answer: D) 120 days

73. The ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is measured in:

A) Seconds
B) Millimeters per hour
C) Grams per deciliter
D) Percentage

Answer: B) Millimeters per hour

74. The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia is:

A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Chronic blood loss
C) Infection
D) Hemolysis

Answer: B) Chronic blood loss

75. What is the function of lymphocytes?

A) Oxygen transport
B) Blood clotting
C) Immune response
D) Fat metabolism

Answer: C) Immune response

76. What is the normal platelet count in a healthy individual?

A) 10,000-50,000/mm³
B) 50,000-100,000/mm³
C) 150,000-400,000/mm³
D) 500,000-1,000,000/mm³

Answer: C) 150,000-400,000/mm³

77. The chemical composition of hemoglobin includes:

A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium

Answer: A) Iron

78. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium?

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Escherichia coli
D) Clostridium perfringens

Answer: C) Escherichia coli

79. A blood smear showing hypersegmented neutrophils indicates:

A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Hemolysis
D) Leukemia

Answer: B) Vitamin B12 deficiency

80. The test used to measure the clotting ability of blood is:

A) ESR
B) PT (Prothrombin Time)
C) HbA1c
D) Widal test

Answer: B) PT (Prothrombin Time)

81. What is the role of bilirubin in the body?

A) Oxygen transport
B) Breakdown of hemoglobin
C) Protein synthesis
D) Blood clotting

Answer: B) Breakdown of hemoglobin

82. The normal range of WBC count in adults is:

A) 1,000-3,000/mm³
B) 4,000-11,000/mm³
C) 12,000-15,000/mm³
D) 20,000-25,000/mm³

Answer: B) 4,000-11,000/mm³

83. Which test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species?

A) Gram stain
B) Coagulase test
C) Catalase test
D) Indole test

Answer: B) Coagulase test

84. The reagent used in the Benedict’s test is:

A) Copper sulfate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Sulfuric acid
D) Potassium hydroxide

Answer: A) Copper sulfate

85. Which stain is used to detect malaria parasites?

A) Gram stain
B) Leishman’s stain
C) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D) PAS stain

Answer: B) Leishman’s stain

86. The most common urine crystal in acidic urine is:

A) Calcium oxalate
B) Ammonium biurate
C) Triple phosphate
D) Cystine

Answer: A) Calcium oxalate

87. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Borrelia burgdorferi
C) Leptospira interrogans
D) Brucella abortus

Answer: B) Borrelia burgdorferi

88. The normal color of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is:

A) Red
B) Yellow
C) Clear and colorless
D) Milky white

Answer: C) Clear and colorless

89. The APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) test is used to assess:

A) The intrinsic coagulation pathway
B) The extrinsic coagulation pathway
C) Blood glucose levels
D) Liver function

Answer: A) The intrinsic coagulation pathway

90. The function of prothrombin in blood clotting is to:

A) Break down fibrin
B) Activate thrombin
C) Transport oxygen
D) Produce platelets

Answer: B) Activate thrombin

91. Which blood group is considered the universal donor?

A) A+
B) B-
C) AB+
D) O-

Answer: D) O-

92. The causative organism of cholera is:

A) Salmonella typhi
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Shigella dysenteriae

Answer: B) Vibrio cholerae

93. The confirmatory test for HIV is:

A) ELISA
B) Western blot
C) Widal test
D) VDRL

Answer: B) Western blot

94. The enzyme responsible for the breakdown of starch into maltose is:

A) Lipase
B) Pepsin
C) Amylase
D) Trypsin

Answer: C) Amylase

95. The presence of schistocytes in a blood smear suggests:

A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Leukemia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer: A) Hemolytic anemia

96. The causative agent of dengue fever is transmitted by:

A) Aedes mosquito
B) Anopheles mosquito
C) Culex mosquito
D) Ticks

Answer: A) Aedes mosquito

97. The prozone phenomenon is seen in which test?

A) Widal test
B) VDRL test
C) Coombs test
D) ELISA

Answer: B) VDRL test

98. The most common type of hemoglobin in adults is:

A) HbA1
B) HbA2
C) HbF
D) HbS

Answer: A) HbA1

99. The substance used for bacterial culture solidification is:

A) Gelatin
B) Agar
C) Peptone
D) Lactose

Answer: B) Agar

100. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Sucrose
D) Lactose

Answer: C) Sucrose

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question. The correct answer is provided after each question.

Hematology (Questions 1-20):

The anticoagulant of choice for complete blood count (CBC) in Nepal is:
a) Sodium Citrate
b) Heparin
c) EDTA (K2 or K3)
d) Sodium Fluoride
Answer: c) EDTA (K2 or K3)
The normal range of hemoglobin for adult males in Nepal is approximately:
a) 10-12 g/dL
b) 12-14 g/dL
c) 13-17 g/dL
d) 15-19 g/dL
Answer: c) 13-17 g/dL (Note: Ranges can vary slightly based on population studies in Nepal)
Which of the following is essential for the maturation of red blood cells?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid
d) Vitamin A
Answer: c) Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid
A low Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) indicates:
a) Macrocytic anemia
b) Normocytic anemia
c) Microcytic anemia
d) Hemolytic anemia
Answer: c) Microcytic anemia
The most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia in Nepal is:
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Iron deficiency
c) Thalassemia major
d) Aplastic anemia
Answer: b) Iron deficiency
The normal range for total white blood cell (WBC) count in adults is:
a) 2,000 - 5,000 /µL
b) 4,000 - 11,000 /µL
c) 10,000 - 15,000 /µL
d) 15,000 - 20,000 /µL
Answer: b) 4,000 - 11,000 /µL
Which of the following WBCs increases in allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
a) Neutrophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
Answer: c) Eosinophils
Platelets are primarily involved in:
a) Oxygen transport
b) Blood clotting
c) Fighting infection
d) Antibody production
Answer: b) Blood clotting
The normal range for platelet count is:
a) 50,000 - 100,000 /µL
b) 100,000 - 250,000 /µL
c) 150,000 - 400,000 /µL
d) 450,000 - 600,000 /µL
Answer: c) 150,000 - 400,000 /µL
Prothrombin Time (PT) is used to monitor:
a) Intrinsic coagulation pathway
b) Extrinsic coagulation pathway
c) Platelet function
d) Fibrinolysis
Answer: b) Extrinsic coagulation pathway
The principle of Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) determination commonly used in Nepal is:
a) Wintrobe method
b) Westergren method
c) Wright's method
d) Giemsa method
Answer: b) Westergren method
Sickle cell disease is caused by an abnormality in:
a) White blood cells
b) Platelets
c) Hemoglobin structure
d) Coagulation factors
Answer: c) Hemoglobin structure
The Coombs test is used to detect:
a) Bleeding disorders
b) Antibodies against red blood cells
c) Clotting factor deficiencies
d) Platelet abnormalities
Answer: b) Antibodies against red blood cells
Which stain is routinely used for differential leukocyte count in Nepal?
a) Gram stain
b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
c) Wright-Giemsa stain
d) Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
Answer: c) Wright-Giemsa stain
The presence of hypersegmented neutrophils is characteristic of:
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Megaloblastic anemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Sickle cell anemia
Answer: b) Megaloblastic anemia
A reticulocyte count is performed to assess:
a) Iron stores
b) Bone marrow erythropoietic activity
c) Platelet production
d) White blood cell maturation
Answer: b) Bone marrow erythropoietic activity
In polycythemia vera, there is an increase in:
a) Only WBCs
b) Only platelets
c) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
d) Only RBCs
Answer: c) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to standardize:
a) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
b) Prothrombin Time (PT)
c) Bleeding Time
d) Clotting Time
Answer: b) Prothrombin Time (PT)
Which of the following is a characteristic of hemolytic anemia?
a) Decreased reticulocyte count
b) Increased bilirubin levels
c) Low LDH levels
d) Decreased MCV
Answer: b) Increased bilirubin levels
The Donath-Landsteiner antibody is associated with:
a) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) Cold agglutinin disease
c) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
d) Drug-induced hemolytic anemia
Answer: c) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

Clinical Chemistry (Questions 21-40):

The primary analyte measured to assess kidney function in Nepal is:
a) Blood glucose
b) Serum bilirubin
c) Serum creatinine
d) Serum amylase
Answer: c) Serum creatinine
The normal fasting blood glucose range in mg/dL is approximately:
a) 40-70
b) 60-110
c) 120-150
d) 180-220
Answer: b) 60-110 (Note: Ranges can vary slightly)
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over:
a) 1 week
b) 1 month
c) 2-3 months
d) 6 months
Answer: c) 2-3 months
Which enzyme is commonly used to assess liver damage?
a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
d) Creatine Kinase (CK)
Answer: c) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of:
a) Urea
b) Glucose
c) Bilirubin
d) Cholesterol
Answer: c) Bilirubin
The most abundant extracellular cation is:
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
Answer: b) Sodium
Hypokalemia refers to a deficiency of:
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Chloride
d) Bicarbonate
Answer: b) Potassium
Serum amylase and lipase are primarily used to diagnose disorders of the:
a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Kidney
d) Heart
Answer: b) Pancreas
High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with increased risk of:
a) Osteoporosis
b) Cardiovascular disease
c) Kidney stones
d) Anemia
Answer: b) Cardiovascular disease
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of:
a) Liver function
b) Kidney function
c) Pancreatic function
d) Muscle metabolism
Answer: b) Kidney function
The principle of the Biuret method is used for the determination of:
a) Glucose
b) Total protein
c) Cholesterol
d) Electrolytes
Answer: b) Total protein
The Jaffe reaction is used for the determination of:
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Bilirubin
d) Uric acid
Answer: b) Creatinine
The enzymatic method using glucose oxidase is commonly used for the determination of:
a) Lactate
b) Glucose
c) Fructosamine
d) Glycogen
Answer: b) Glucose
Spectrophotometry measures:
a) Cell size
b) Electrical conductivity
c) Light absorbance or transmittance
d) Particle size
Answer: c) Light absorbance or transmittance
Quality control in clinical chemistry ensures:
a) Expensive reagents are used
b) Accurate and precise results
c) Tests are done quickly
d) Staff is always busy
Answer: b) Accurate and precise results
A control sample with a known value is used to assess:
a) Patient compliance
b) Instrument calibration
c) Accuracy and precision
d) Turnaround time
Answer: c) Accuracy and precision
Serum is preferred over plasma for some tests because:
a) It contains clotting factors
b) It does not contain clotting factors
c) It is easier to obtain
d) It has a longer shelf life
Answer: b) It does not contain clotting factors
Sodium fluoride is used as a preservative and antiglycolytic agent for:
a) CBC
b) Blood culture
c) Glucose estimation
d) Coagulation studies
Answer: c) Glucose estimation
Ion-selective electrodes (ISEs) are commonly used to measure:
a) Enzymes
b) Hormones
c) Electrolytes
d) Lipids
Answer: c) Electrolytes
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is based on:
a) Precipitation reactions
b) Agglutination reactions
c) Antigen-antibody reactions with enzyme labels
d) Electrophoretic separation
Answer: c) Antigen-antibody reactions with enzyme labels

Microbiology (Questions 41-60):

The primary stain used in Gram staining is:
a) Safranin
b) Crystal Violet
c) Decolorizer
d) Iodine
Answer: b) Crystal Violet
Gram-positive bacteria appear _________ after Gram staining.
a) Pink
b) Red
c) Purple
d) Colorless
Answer: c) Purple
Acid-fast staining is primarily used to identify:
a) Streptococcus spp.
b) Staphylococcus spp.
c) Mycobacterium spp.
d) Escherichia coli
Answer: c) Mycobacterium spp.
The primary stain in Ziehl-Neelsen staining is:
a) Methylene Blue
b) Crystal Violet
c) Carbolfuchsin
d) Safranin
Answer: c) Carbolfuchsin
MacConkey agar is selective for:
a) Gram-positive bacteria
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Viruses
Answer: b) Gram-negative bacteria
Blood agar is an example of a/an:
a) Selective medium
b) Differential medium
c) Minimal medium
d) Inhibitory medium
Answer: b) Differential medium
Beta-hemolysis on blood agar is characterized by:
a) No lysis
b) Partial lysis (greenish)
c) Complete lysis (clear zone)
d) Blackening of the agar
Answer: c) Complete lysis (clear zone)
The optimal growth temperature for most pathogenic bacteria is:
a) 4°C
b) 25°C
c) 37°C
d) 56°C
Answer: c) 37°C
Autoclaving sterilizes materials by using:
a) Dry heat
b) Radiation
c) Moist heat under pressure
d) Chemical disinfectants
Answer: c) Moist heat under pressure
Viruses are composed of:
a) DNA only
b) RNA only
c) DNA or RNA enclosed in a protein coat
d) Cell wall and cytoplasm
Answer: c) DNA or RNA enclosed in a protein coat
Catalase test differentiates between:
a) Streptococcus and Staphylococcus
b) Staphylococcus and Micrococcus
c) Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
d) Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
Answer: b) Staphylococcus and Micrococcus
Coagulase test is used to identify:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Escherichia coli
d) Salmonella typhi
Answer: b) Staphylococcus aureus
The Kirby-Bauer method is used for:
a) Bacterial staining
b) Antibiotic susceptibility testing
c) Bacterial identification
d) Counting bacterial colonies
Answer: b) Antibiotic susceptibility testing
The zone of inhibition in antibiotic susceptibility testing indicates:
a) Bacterial growth
b) Bacterial resistance
c) Bacterial susceptibility
d) Antibiotic concentration
Answer: c) Bacterial susceptibility
Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA) is primarily used for the cultivation of:
a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Viruses
d) Parasites
Answer: b) Fungi
A common fungal infection prevalent in Nepal is:
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Ringworm (Tinea)
d) Typhoid fever
Answer: c) Ringworm (Tinea)
The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Vibrio cholerae
Answer: c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The primary method for diagnosing typhoid fever in the laboratory is:
a) Blood culture
b) Urine culture
c) Stool culture
d) Serological tests (Widal test)
Answer: a) Blood culture (Note: Blood culture is the gold standard, Widal is still used in some settings in Nepal)
Cholera is caused by:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Shigella dysenteriae
Answer: c) Vibrio cholerae
A common parasitic infection in Nepal is:
a) Influenza
b) Measles
c) Ascariasis (Roundworm infection)
d) Dengue fever
Answer: c) Ascariasis (Roundworm infection)

Parasitology and Miscellaneous (Questions 61-100):

Malaria is caused by the genus:
a) Leishmania
b) Trypanosoma
c) Plasmodium
d) Entamoeba
Answer: c) Plasmodium
The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is the:
a) Trophozoite
b) Cyst
c) Merozoite
d) Sporozoite
Answer: b) Cyst
Giardiasis is caused by:
a) Plasmodium falciparum
b) Leishmania donovani
c) Giardia lamblia
d) Trypanosoma brucei
Answer: c) Giardia lamblia
The eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides are found in:
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Stool
d) Sputum
Answer: c) Stool
Hookworm infection is caused by:
a) Enterobius vermicularis
b) Taenia solium
c) Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus
d) Echinococcus granulosus
Answer: c) Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus
Pinworm infection is diagnosed by:
a) Blood smear
b) Urine analysis
c) Scotch tape test
d) Stool examination
Answer: c) Scotch tape test
Hydatid cyst disease is caused by:
a) Taenia saginata
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Schistosoma haematobium
d) Fasci

The intermediate host for the malaria parasite is:
a) Human
b) Female Anopheles mosquito
c) Snail
d) Sandfly
Answer: b) Female Anopheles mosquito
Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by:
a) Trypanosoma gambiense
b) Leishmania donovani
c) Plasmodium vivax
d) Wuchereria bancrofti
Answer: b) Leishmania donovani
The vector for Leishmania donovani in Nepal is the:
a) Culex mosquito
b) Aedes mosquito
c) Sandfly
d) Housefly
Answer: c) Sandfly
Filarial worms, causing lymphatic filariasis (Hattipaile), are transmitted by:
a) Anopheles mosquito
b) Culex mosquito
c) Aedes mosquito
d) Sandfly
Answer: b) Culex mosquito
The causative agent of amoebic dysentery is:
a) Giardia lamblia
b) Entamoeba coli
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Balantidium coli
Answer: c) Entamoeba histolytica
The primary method for diagnosing intestinal parasitic infections is:
a) Blood examination
b) Urine examination
c) Stool examination
d) Sputum examination
Answer: c) Stool examination
A common method for concentrating parasites in stool samples is:
a) Direct smear
b) Simple sedimentation
c) Differential staining
d) Culture
Answer: b) Simple sedimentation
Which of the following is a blood parasite?
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Giardia lamblia
c) Plasmodium falciparum
d) Enterobius vermicularis
Answer: c) Plasmodium falciparum
Proper disposal of biohazardous waste in a laboratory in Nepal is crucial to prevent:
a) Equipment malfunction
b) Environmental contamination and disease transmission
c) Reagent deterioration
d) Inaccurate test results
Answer: b) Environmental contamination and disease transmission
The recommended color-coding for sharp waste containers (needles, blades) in Nepal is typically:
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Blue
d) Black
Answer: b) Yellow
Universal precautions in the laboratory are designed to protect healthcare workers from:
a) Chemical hazards
b) Physical injuries
c) Bloodborne pathogens
d) Radiation exposure
Answer: c) Bloodborne pathogens
Which of the following is a primary barrier used in personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a) Calculator
b) Notebook
c) Gloves
d) Pen
Answer: c) Gloves
In case of a chemical spill on the skin, the first action should be to:
a) Apply a neutralizing agent
b) Cover the area with a bandage
c) Flush the area with copious amounts of water
d) Seek immediate medical attention without flushing
Answer: c) Flush the area with copious amounts of water
Regular calibration of laboratory equipment is important for:
a) Reducing workload
b) Ensuring accurate and reliable results
c) Increasing the speed of testing
d) Lowering the cost of reagents
Answer: b) Ensuring accurate and reliable results
The purpose of internal quality control (IQC) in a laboratory is to:
a) Compare results with other laboratories
b) Monitor the daily performance of tests and equipment
c) Assess the competency of the staff
d) Ensure compliance with external regulations
Answer: b) Monitor the daily performance of tests and equipment
External Quality Assessment (EQA) or Proficiency Testing helps to:
a) Train new staff members
b) Evaluate the performance of a laboratory compared to others
c) Troubleshoot instrument problems
d) Manage the laboratory budget
Answer: b) Evaluate the performance of a laboratory compared to others
Proper labeling of laboratory specimens is essential for:
a) Making the laboratory look organized
b) Ensuring correct patient identification and preventing errors
c) Tracking the cost of tests
d) Maintaining inventory of supplies
Answer: b) Ensuring correct patient identification and preventing errors
The primary goal of a clinical laboratory is to:
a) Generate revenue
b) Conduct research
c) Provide accurate and timely diagnostic information
d) Train medical students
Answer: c) Provide accurate and timely diagnostic information
Which of the following is a common fixative used in histopathology in Nepal?
a) Acetone
b) Alcohol
c) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin
d) Bouin's solution
Answer: c) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin
The most common staining method used in histopathology is:
a) Gram stain
b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
c) Hematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)
d) Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS)
Answer: c) Hematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)
Cytology primarily deals with the study of:
a) Tissues
b) Individual cells
c) Microorganisms
d) Chemical substances
Answer: b) Individual cells
Papanicolaou (Pap) stain is commonly used for screening:
a) Blood cancers
b) Lung infections
c) Cervical cancer
d) Urinary tract infections
Answer: c) Cervical cancer
In Nepal, awareness programs for cervical cancer screening are important due to the prevalence of:
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) HPV infection
d) Malnutrition
Answer: c) HPV infection
Molecular diagnostic techniques like PCR are used to detect:
a) Cell morphology
b) Specific DNA or RNA sequences
c) Antibody levels
d) Electrolyte concentrations
Answer: b) Specific DNA or RNA sequences
Ethical considerations in the laboratory include:
a) Sharing patient results on social media
b) Maintaining patient confidentiality
c) Falsifying quality control data
d) Using expired reagents knowingly
Answer: b) Maintaining patient confidentiality
Continuous professional development (CPD) is important for DMLT professionals in Nepal to:
a) Increase their salary
b) Stay updated with advancements in the field
c) Get promoted quickly
d) Reduce their workload
Answer: b) Stay updated with advancements in the field
Knowledge of common diseases prevalent in Nepal is important for DMLT professionals to:
a) Prescribe medications
b) Interpret laboratory results in the local context
c) Perform surgeries
d) Manage hospital administration
Answer: b) Interpret laboratory results in the local context
The National Health Professional Council (NHPC) in Nepal is the regulatory body for:
a) Hospitals
b) Medical colleges
c) Healthcare professionals
d) Pharmaceutical companies
Answer: c) Healthcare professionals
Adherence to the guidelines and standards set by NHPC Nepal is mandatory for:
a) Only government laboratories
b) Only private laboratories
c) All clinical laboratories and DMLT professionals
d) Only research laboratories
Answer: c) All clinical laboratories and DMLT professionals
Proper documentation and record-keeping in the laboratory are essential for:
a) Ordering new supplies
b) Billing patients accurately
c) Quality assurance and legal purposes
d) Staff attendance records
Answer: c) Quality assurance and legal purposes
When handling patient samples, it is important to treat all samples as:
a) Non-infectious
b) Potentially infectious
c) Only infectious if the patient is known to have a disease
d) Safe after disinfection
Answer: b) Potentially infectious
Maintaining a clean and organized work environment in the laboratory helps to:
a) Reduce the number of tests performed
b) Prevent accidents and errors
c) Increase the cost of testing
d) Make the lab look aesthetically pleasing
Answer: b) Prevent accidents and errors
The role of a DMLT professional in the healthcare system of Nepal is primarily focused on:
a) Diagnosing diseases clinically
b) Providing direct patient care
c) Generating accurate and reliable laboratory data for diagnosis and monitoring
d) Prescribing medications based on lab results
Answer: c) Generating accurate and reliable laboratory data for diagnosis and monitoring
Leishmaniasis in Nepal is primarily transmitted by the bite of a:

a) Female Anopheles mosquito

b) Female Culex mosquito

c) Female Phlebotomus sandfly

d) Female Aedes mosquito

**Answer: c) Female Phlebotomus sandfly**

102 The causative agent of Kala-azar prevalent in certain regions of Nepal is:

a) Leishmania tropica

b) Leishmania major

c) Leishmania donovani

d) Leishmania braziliensis

**Answer: c) Leishmania donovani**

103. Microfilariae of *Wuchereria bancrofti*, the causative agent of lymphatic filariasis, are typically found in peripheral blood at:

a) Any time of the day

b) During the day

c) Primarily at night (nocturnal periodicity)

d) Primarily in the morning

**Answer: c) Primarily at night (nocturnal periodicity)**

104. The recommended method for detecting microfilariae in Nepal, considering its periodicity, is often:

a) Buffy coat smear during the day

b) Thick blood film collected at night

c) Urine examination

d) Skin snip

**Answer: b) Thick blood film collected at night**

105. Giardia lamblia is a common intestinal parasite in Nepal, often identified by its:

a) Round eggs with thick shells

b) Cysts with multiple nuclei and flagellated trophozoites

c) Larvae that penetrate the skin

d) Adult worms visible to the naked eye in stool

**Answer: b) Cysts with multiple nuclei and flagellated trophozoites**

106. In Nepal, proper disposal of used lancets and needles should be in a puncture-proof container, typically colored:

a) Red

b) Yellow

c) Blue

d) Green

**Answer: b) Yellow**

107. When working with potentially infectious samples in a lab in Nepal, wearing _________ is mandatory.

a) A lab coat only

b) Gloves only

c) Lab coat, gloves, and sometimes a mask and eye protection

d) Regular street clothes

**Answer: c) Lab coat, gloves, and sometimes a mask and eye protection**

108. For accurate blood glucose monitoring, especially in diabetic patients in Nepal, the preferred anticoagulant for plasma samples is often:

a) EDTA

b) Heparin

c) Sodium Fluoride

d) Sodium Citrate

**Answer: c) Sodium Fluoride** (as it inhibits glycolysis)

109. In a clinical chemistry lab in Nepal, a sudden increase in both serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) likely indicates:

a) Liver failure

b) Acute kidney injury

c) Pancreatitis

d) Myocardial infarction

**Answer: b) Acute kidney injury**

110. Elevated levels of liver enzymes (AST, ALT) are commonly seen in Nepal due to prevalent conditions like:

a) Iron deficiency anemia

b) Viral hepatitis

c) Tuberculosis

d) Malaria

**Answer: b) Viral hepatitis**

111. For diagnosing enteric fever (typhoid) in the early stages in Nepal, the most reliable laboratory test is:

a) Urine culture

b) Stool culture

c) Blood culture

d) Widal test

**Answer: c) Blood culture**

112. In the context of tuberculosis diagnosis in Nepal, sputum samples are primarily examined using:

a) Gram stain

b) Acid-fast stain (e.g., Ziehl-Neelsen)

c) Giemsa stain

d) India ink preparation

**Answer: b) Acid-fast stain (e.g., Ziehl-Neelsen)**

113. The reagent used as a decolorizer in the Gram staining procedure is typically:

a) Crystal violet

b) Iodine

c) Acetone-alcohol

d) Safranin

**Answer: c) Acetone-alcohol**

114. For culturing fungi, which is relatively common in the humid climate of parts of Nepal, the most suitable medium is:

a) Nutrient agar

b) MacConkey agar

c) Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA)

d) Blood agar

**Answer: c) Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA)**

115. In blood banking in Nepal, the universal donor for packed red blood cells is blood group:

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

**Answer: d) O**

116. The Rh blood group system is particularly important in Nepal for preventing Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), which can occur when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus and develops:

a) Anti-A antibodies

b) Anti-B antibodies

c) Anti-D antibodies

d) Anti-AB antibodies

**Answer: c) Anti-D antibodies**

117. Proper record-keeping in a DMLT lab in Nepal is essential for:

a) Ordering new equipment

b) Ensuring traceability of results and maintaining quality standards

c) Calculating staff salaries

d) Patient appointment scheduling

**Answer: b) Ensuring traceability of results and maintaining quality standards**

118. Following the guidelines of the National Health Professional Council (NHPC) of Nepal is _________ for all practicing DMLT professionals.

a) Optional

b) Recommended but not mandatory

c) Mandatory

d) Only for government employees

**Answer: c) Mandatory**

119. Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) programs in DMLT labs in Nepal aim to:

a) Reduce the number of tests performed

b) Enhance the accuracy, efficiency, and reliability of laboratory services

c) Decrease staff workload

d) Increase patient waiting times

**Answer: b) Enhance the accuracy, efficiency, and reliability of laboratory services**

120. A DMLT professional in Nepal plays a vital role in public health by:

a) Directly treating patients

b) Conducting surgeries

c) Providing crucial laboratory data for disease diagnosis, surveillance, and monitoring

d) Managing hospital finances

**Answer: c) Providing crucial laboratory data for disease diagnosis, surveillance, and monitoring**

300 questions for DMLT licensing exam preparation. Let me know if you need more!

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